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Schnoogles. I am a bit migrainy and out of sorts with the world at the moment - sorry for being such a ladypart.
To the purpose.
Perhaps it's accurate to say that sometimes the word carries misogynist overtones when used as a pejorative and sometimes it does not.
True to an extent, I think...it is possible to describe someone as a cunt without any immediately gendered overtones, clearly; calling somebody who has just cut you up in traffic a cunt is in no sense a reflection on *their* gender. This doesn't necessarily mean, however, that the word has no gendered (rather than intrinsically *misogynistic* - that would probably the next step on from "gendered") sense. This kind of hinges on:
But language mutates and evolves over time, so that the origins of certain words become irrelevant to their later contexts. The expletive function and the literal denotation of the word "fucking" have become so divorced that it's difficult to make a convincing case that the one has a bearing on the other. I would argue that the same situation applies to the word "cunt," and that we are allowing emotions to trample over reason.
Which I think is sort of true and sort of not true. For example, I think on most meaningful levels that it matters little to most people on most situations that the petard by which they are hoist was originally a word used to denote an explosive device used against fortifications, or indeed that their vagina is derived from the Latin word for "sheath" (being itself, like so many things, a metaphor).
I think that it is far more contentious to make this claim about a word the varying meanings of which still have currency. For example "I'm fucking your cunt" could, with no change in punctation, be a rather rude description of a sexual act (using their first-order meanings), an extremely emphatic way for a ladypart to introduce itself to it owner, or a very unpleasant way to inform somebody that you have been sleeping with their wife.
So, while a series of usages are in play simultaneously, I would suggest that it is impossible to draw clear interpretative lines between them and say "there is no connection between this word and this morphologically identical word". At the same time, it is impossible to deny that "cunt" applied to Bob the cheat is not the same thing as "cunt" applied to a beloved and much-cosetted ladypart.
Which is where the Wittgenstein comes in. In a feather boa. Tapdancing. Cunt applied to Bob the cheater is a satellite of cunt applied to the aforementioned ladypart. It has a different meaning, but a common root, which can demonstrably be said to have its roots in ladypart land. The usual Wittgensteinian example is "sad" - the word describing a sad person does not mean the same thing as the word describing a sad painting, but the word describing a sad painting depends on the existence of the word describing a sad person for people to understand it. To which one could now add "sad" used to describe a sad fucker, which melds concepts from both first and second-order meanings.
So, to say that somebody may well not be thinking of a ladypart when they call someone a cunt is defensible. To say that the word "cunt" meaning ladypart and the word "cunt" meaning "person I do not approve of", or the word "fucking" meaning "having sex" and the word "fucking" meaning "I would very much like you to pay attention to what I am in the middle of saying" are totally unconnected conceptually is, I suspect, suspect - it would probably need an anthropological survey to come to a definite conclusion, but I think your argument as it stands is counter-intuitive and counter-rational.
If the contention is that Pete is not thinking of ladyparts when he calls Bob a cunt, then that is no doubt perfectly desensible, but not necessarily relevant to the linguistic function of the word, or indeed to what Betty thinks when she overhears Pete.
Which brings us most probably to:
I'm very interested in B, as the consensus so far seems to be that men can take it, and women can't, which frankly I find misogynist and offensive in itself.
Hmmm. Probably "misogynist" in a similar way to positive discrimination being "racist". I think the idea here is that women's experience of the word "cunt" is simply *different* to men's. For one thing, to be obvious, most (although not all) women have something that can be described as a cunt. Most men have nothing resembling the thing that can be described on women as a cunt, and those that do would generally not so describe it. Therefore most women could be identified as much closer to the symbolic crux, if you will - describing a woman as a "cunt" is actually a metonym (or more precisely a synecdoche), in a way that it simply cannot be for most men; there is a distancing effect for men, conversely (the term can be a metaphor, but not a synecdoche).
Now, if you are arguing that there is no connection between the word "cunt" and the word "cunt", this should not make a difference. But, even if Pete has no intent to do other than express strong disapproval when he calls Betty a stupid cunt for arriving late or losing her keys, his phraseology uses a part of herself to represent her whole, and one with very clear things to say about what women are for and what women in contrast are *not* for. Now, whether that is enough to justify a different attitude towards calling men and women cunts is a matter for the group, but the point is worthwhile that it is not a question of "women are too weak and puny to take this strong language" but "women relate to this language in a different way to men, and so are in fact taking something entirely different". Which may still be patronising or misguided or just plain wrong, but need not be misogynistic.
By which logic, intent may be relevant or not, just as context may be relevant or not.
Now, if you maintain that there is no connection whatsoever between the word "cunt" and the word "cunt", this entire argument can be thrown out as irrelevant, and I apologise to the court for wasting their time. But I really don't think that one can say that without some form of fairly hardcore supporting evidence, experiential, psycholinguistic or both. Whether that justifies not using it is another question again. |
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