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I'm not going anywhere near the post above me, but I am curious about this, from Ganesh:
I'm unsure, for example, whether, as a gay man, my own instances of misogyny (and one reason I've avoided the discussion thus far is that it's making me uncomfortably aware of misogynist stuff I've posted in the past) stem from the same sociocultural root as heterosexual male misogyny, or whether some of it arises from the kind of ambivalent maternal transference that seems more common among gay men.
I'm not exactly sure what you mean by "ambivalent maternal transference," number one, and number two -- are you sure this is a problem that even mostly affects gay men? It seems to me that issues with one's mother affecting one's relationships with other women (sexual or otherwise) is a syndrome pretty prevalent among a lot of us (the male us, I mean). That aside, though, what I'm really interested in is how you'd define the term -- it's the "ambivalent" part that I'm having a hard time getting in the context. |
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