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The UK government's official socio-economic divisions - beware: extremely dull.
Historical view of class:
The upper, lower and middle class allocations are essentially feudual.
The upper classes owned substantial amounts of land on which others worked.
The lower classes worked on that land or had a similar supporting role (e.g. tradesmen).
The middle classes were independently wealthy businessmen, merchants, and small but growing number of 'professionals' such as lawyers, physicians, etc.
Capitialism alters this model as wealth is no longer predicated on ownership of agricultural land. Metaphorically, it becomes 'liquid'. Instead it shifts to ownership of the means of production. Or even the intellectual 'property' in their heads (if you include highly-renumerated professionals such as lawyers, consultants, bankers, etc).
Now arguably, there is still a division of those who own and those who work for those who own - but it's a bit more complicated than it used to be.
Also, does being a member of a certain class affect peoples lives even now? Accents, where they were born, etc? Is there potential for movement through the classes or are you locked into a particular strata of society?
Well, that's a classic question about social mobility. And most people would say that our societies are more mobile than they used to be. Can anyone present evidence to contrary? Of course an interesting spin on this would be: this may be true in Western societies but is the same true globally?
Hmmm. I've seen class defined socially according to
1) Economics, as in income, net worth, property, and purchasing power, etc.
2) Lineage, as in titular or ascribed status
3) Culture, as in modes of aesthetics, speech, gustation, etc.
Now a Marxist would probably say that 3) is a function of 1). [Superstructure vs. base?] And I'd probably agree with certain privisos.
2) is another matter. In societies built around the inheritence of land, then 2) obviously lines up with 1). In more mercantile societies, this relationship still exists but is less stable. In fact the divorce of 1) from 2) is kinda what 'social mobility' means.
Another way to understand class is from an 'intersubjective' rather than 'objective' standpoint. In other words, members of a class must identify themselves as belonging to a class and so must most members of other classes. For example, during the feudal period, a peasant would often think to themselves - "hey, I'm a peasant" and look at an aristocrat - "hey, there's an aristocrat" and the aristocrat would look at the peasant and go - "hey, there's a peasant". And each might have different value judgements about what these specific labels mean, but they'd probably agree on the labels.
N.B. class labels - and also class consciousness and alliegence - are also mapped over other identities - gender, religion, race, national and geographical, sexuality, etc. Increased social mobility would imply that the powervalue of class labels would decrease relative to the others. Is this what has happened? |
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