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The implication is that the current crisis could easily be regulated away with no adverse consequences.
Where is that implication? I certainly implied no such thing. Your _inference_ may be that etc, but that's a different matter. Again, you always do this, Buk. Argue that free trade is the best possible solution and then, if the basis for this assertion is questioned, a) restate it, with a proviso any specific objection ("x is a bad thing. More free trade would resolve it, by making everyone better off") and b) require the person questioning the virtues of free trade as a cure-all to provide a complete argument for a position that they are not advancing to start with, usually "how would a centrally-planned economy have made this better" - phrased in this case with the dismissive "regulate away all badness". However, free trade is not subjected to the same requirements - in the face of a credit crunch, the fall of the US residential market and a wave of foreclosures, you are still saying, unevidenced:
in the example of the housing market, it all works very well the way it is now.
This whole procedure just feels a bit unrewarding over time, you know? |
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