To avoid further oil spills on the shores of the Badiou and Zizek threads, I propose this thread.
The background:
In the Zizek thread, I pulled out a quote of Zizek's which seemed to align him with the Stalinist cause to some degree:
Class antagonism, unlike racial difference and conflict, is absolutely inherent to and constitutive of the social field; Fascism displaces this essential antagonism.
AAR noticed this and asked me:
Just out of interest, what's actually wrong with this assertion?
Race is a social construct, not something that constitutes us - it doesn't exist down at the roots. Dig deeper than 'race' and you find economics - race is nearly always a blind to distract us from economics: "Let's go and better these savages!" being an excuse to go and steal a load of resources and take over land.
Fascism claims race is a) a real, objective thing and b) essential - neither of these assertions are true. Whereas class warfare is demonstrably real (who put together my trainers, who cleans up my shit, who's going to clean up this library when I've gone home and who will still be doing this when I've got my cushy teaching job?) and fundamental to the social field.
To which I replied:
The point I was raising was not specifically to do with the validity of the statement, but more that, in giving a certain 'ontological' grounding to the situation which gave rise to the Russian revolution, Zizek is flying his colours. It seemed to me to run in line with what I saw as a reading of Stalinist Russia as 'obviously a mean, bad thing, but they meant right, not like those nasty Nazis'. It's not a reading that I necessarily agree with.
As for the right/wrongness of the statement itself - I'm not sure.
I think it's a good reading of the situation in Nazi Germany - economic strife used as a grounding for a party based in National Pride at the expense of the Jewish, Communist, Romani etc Others. It's be interesting to follow way that people will do anything if put in a position of economic concern.
But I find myself disagreeing with the claim that class conflict is inherent to, or constitutive of society, though I'm not sure why. I can see that class coflict is a major part of our culture, and I can see that the essential unrest, within which our culture resides, is used as a tool by policitians to justify War on Fear, persecution of poorer people and/or foreigners, etc. I just feel an unease when I see people try to use this as either a Universal Theory or a means to say capitalism is a Bad Thing.
When you say
Race is a social construct, not something that constitutes us - it doesn't exist down at the roots.
and
class warfare is demonstrably real... and fundamental to the social field.
I'd have to disagree. I can only see that class is just as socially constructed as race. Antagonism between classes is no more fundamental than is antagonism between races.
Both situations are historicaly constituted facts which rely on the past having taken the course it has done. To subsume racial conflict to economic considerations of wealth and need seems to be a little short sighted. Yes, there are times when race is used as a 'cover' for what are, at core, economic problems (Blair's blaming of London shootings on 'a distinctive black culture' comes to mind...) but I think there are certain other forces at play when we construct ideas of race, and when we use these ideas to discriminate.
So I'm not sure that class warfare is any more a) a real, objective thing or b) essential than is race.
As I've probably made obvious here, I should probably read more Marx(ian theory) to get a better understanding of this stuff. I just find myself slightly knee-jerky when it comes to people trying to valourise any of the murderous 'communist' movements by placing them in a theoretical field of correctness or necessity.
This then spilled over to the Badiou thread, where _pin asked me:
And now I would like to ask petunia, do you mean that
- you don't believe that antagonistic pairings in society map to roles we'd normally associate with owning and not owning the means of production?
- in a from each, to each economic model would also yield roles we'd normally associate with owning and not owning the means of production, but that these would not here be antagonistic?
- mapping wealth in a mathamatic way is tantamount to phrenology and the role that that played in racial politics.
I may be wrong, and if so just PM me an answer and wipe this post or whatever, but it seems like a relevant question that we can ask, regarding Badiou's project. What data is permissible when constructing a politics? What and is not, functionally, real enough?
To which I posted a rather sprawling, and decidedly off-topic:
Hmm..
I'm still quite unformed in my thinking in this, so bear with me here...
you don't believe that antagonistic pairings in society map to roles we'd normally associate with owning and not owning the means of production?
I both do and don't. I see antagonism between many different groupings. There is frequent vertical conflict (strikes/activism, etc). There is also frequent horizontal conflict (different working class gangs in a patch of land, conflict between racial/religious groupings). I think that, while a lot of this can be explained in economic terms, there are deeper underlying problems. Um..
So I have some issue with the term 'means of production'. There is a certain story that seems to underpin this term - whereby a person is the owner of their work, they are a resource and the Boss exploits this resource. But if a person is unemployed, where is this resource? There is (in my reading, admittedly underinformed) a materialst assumption of 'means of production = stuff', and I don't think that applies. Um..
I think that organised religion has created a great amount of antagonism in the world, and I don't see what religion has to do with the means of production.
So no, I don't think that all antagonistic groupings (and they aren't necessarily pairings...) are related to owning/not owning means of production. The growth of capitalism our of feudalism has led capital to be seen in the same terms as ownership (and self ownership), in the way that a feudal lord would literally own the land and people on it. As the processes of capital move away from direct land-based work, I think conflict moves into a different sphere.
I suppose I mean to say that there are forms of control to which differing peoples find themselves opposed in different ways, but that these forms of control are not the product of a capitalist society, rather the product of certain structures of society. Capitalism allows for varied structures of society. Between totalitarianism and anarcho-capitalism, I am not aure we can assume that capital holds the same necessary role of control.
Is this what you mean by in a from each, to each economic model would also yield roles we'd normally associate with owning and not owning the means of production, but that these would not here be antagonistic??
mapping wealth in a mathamatic way is tantamount to phrenology and the role that that played in racial politics.
I am not sure (again). I have a limited understanding of mathematics so I do not know how it could be used to form a ontology or a politics. I don't really think that we can use an objective method of description to describe something as subjective as class war - how does one mathematically delineate the discontentment of a worker? How does one define the structure by which a worker is forced to remain in that position? Quality of life as a sum?
I wouldn't say it is impossible to map these subjective realms, but I really can't imagine how it could convincingly be done. Like phrenology, I'd be suspicious that the mathematician was making odd inferences through the selective issuing of data.
What data is permissible when constructing a politics? What and is not, functionally, real enough?
The thing I found contention with in the distinction between race and class was that race is most definitely real in the sense that we live it, race is a continually acted process which many millions of people adhere to, work by and interact through. However, at the same time, it has no objective reality. We may be able to point to differential characteristics in the body of a person, but where is the race? We are left with a constantly differing mix of traits and movements which are taken up by society and delineated in greater or lesser ways. Race is both 'given' to people and 'acted' by them as an identity.
I would say that class distinctions are just as real, in this 'societally objective' sense - people still act in terms of class, some have their class given by others, some act in terms of a class. But I don't think we can objectively (in a more scientific/mathematical way) map the class differences. We can map who owns what, but what will this tell us in true political terms? I earn under £10,000 a year, which would make me working class in strictly monetary terms. However, I have a middle-class upbringing and am partaking in a university education. I speak in an educated way, and I worry about my class. This makes me decidedly middle class. How would we quantify this? On what scale? What political meaning would it hold?
Your question of what data is permissible when making a politics is defintely tricky. I suppose you have to start with the aim your politics is to have. What is it that you wish to move towards? Or is it something you wish to move from?
In a sense, all data must be applicable to a politics - whatever we find important should be what guides us, but how can this be coded without ending up at 'I find my racial heritage to be important and wish to move my politics towards a whites-only country'?
So we then do need to find that data which will allow for a universalised politics? That data, that movement that will allow for the greatest prefered situation for everybody?
This was (rightly) noted as off-thread and I asked for to be removed. AAR then continued with:
On this:
"I'd have to disagree. I can only see that class is just as socially constructed as race. Antagonism between classes is no more fundamental than is antagonism between races."
So, as an experiment, of the following two options, what's the best description of the history of Europe, bearing in mind that both might be problematic?
a) Different races fighting eachother for supremacy.
b) Different classes fighting eachother for supremacy.
Lurid responded with:
I'm not sure I understand, AAR. They are both bad....but if you force me to choose one, I go for (a). Now what?
And Jackie Susann replied thus:
Does it work any better for you if you make the choices:
a) a dynamic conflict between economic forces.
or
b) a dynamic conflict between racial forces.
I think maybe the problem here is a confusion between the commonsense meaning of class (rough social group) and the marxist sense (process of transformation of the relations of production).
I think my preferred thought experiment might be, which of the following two is easier to imagine:
a) A society where the way things are produces and distributed is utterly irrelevant to society.
b) A society where the way people are racially classified is utterly irrelevant to society.
It seems to me that the former is obviously impossible, but the latter isn't that difficult to conceive (although, obviously, ridiculously difficult to put into practice). Hence, the irreducibility of class.
Would also like to emphasise that this argument has nothing to do with the outdated marxist one that class politics are more important (or really separable) from race politics.
Which spurred:
I'm more confused, Jackie. Class is a "process of transformation..."? I thought class in the Marxist sense was a division of people according to whether they own significant assets or are paid to produce things by those who do...roughly. So while I can accept a) a dynamic conflict between economic forces as an extremely rough outline of some periods of European history, I'm not entirely sure what it has to do with class, per se. That is, if Burger King and Macdonalds engage in a price war, this is certainly an economic conflict but would you really say it was a class conflict? The point being that if you analyse things in terms of economics, Burger King and Macdonalds look like pretty similar entities.
While I'm not sure if you can really say that European conflict followed that model, the fight for empire and the related resources isn't obviously disimilar either.
From Lurid
And:
Yeah, I think the problem here is that when I say 'marxist' what I actually mean is 'the pretty fucking obscure ultraleftist tradition within marxism'. For which economics refers, not to a specialised discipline or range of business practices, but the (inherently dynamic) ways things are produced and distributed in society. That is what I am suggesting is irreducible - although obviously, any specific manifestation (Burger King v MacDonalds, bourgeoisie v proletariat, etc.) is just as socially constructed as race.
From Jackie.
Nolte added:
...In which case the referent of the word class is so large as to be largely worthless, or largely trivial, probably both. I think there's a reason why even Marxist sociologists tend to operationalise class as a function of income, education and a few other core factors, instead of going with "the broad forces of production". Or am I creating a strawman here?
And AAR
Would also like to emphasise that this argument has nothing to do with the outdated marxist one that class politics are more important (or really separable) from race politics.
So you solve the problem of segregation in country X. Then what? Job done? Not that you were suggesting this, but there's a lot of fluffy obscurantists at my university who have the Marxphobia - and who seem to think that having a few people in wheelchairs on the BBC idents solves any problems our society might conceivably have...
[...]Let me re-word it - how are you going to solve the racist superstructure without tackling the base? - if that's what you're suggesting. If not, and I'm missing something which is quite likely, could you explain the position a bit more?
And this as as far as we've got.
It seems at the moment we have differing views that you Can/Can't describe the history of Western Europe/The World by means to a Marxist/Marxian/Inspired by Marx critique of the interplay of economic (or 'economic') processes.
I think further discussion of this would be helpful because:
a. I know very little of the Marxian tradition and would like to know more.
b. This tradition has shaped a lot of the arguments of the Left in the past century, it seems pretty important to work out if it's actually valid.
c. We're all after handy tools to fix society with and we (I) need to know which tools work best.
Onward! |