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quote:Originally posted by Tyrone Mushylaces:
Therefore, irrespective of the word used, or the prevailing culture, the word signifying 'female-hood' will only ever indicate the prevailing (and therefore limited and dogmatic) conception of 'female-hood' in that society and therefore will always be compromised, just in different ways.
Or do I just not get it?
I'm kind of expanding on what Haus said, I think, but bear with me.
I think the cul-de-sac stems from your assuming that 'female-hood' is constant cross-culturally: that there are 2 sexes, no more, no less, and that all societies will always divide their populations into male and female. "Heteropatriarchy" could actually be taken as a name for all societies which *do* believe in a biologically determined sexual dimorphism, and are structured accordingly around a gendered division of labour.
Cf Blue-Stocking's anecdote above, about Monique Wittig denying that she had a vagina, which I would interpret thusly, with all due quaking in the direction of Blue, who knows this stuff better than I do: Wittig may or may not have what a gynaecologist would describe as a vagina, but in terms of the cultural meaning and signifying potential of the vagina, she does not have one; that is, she does not have what you or I would call a 'vagina', and hence is not, biologically or otherwise, a 'woman'.
Also, I think you're assuming that Wittig and other lesbians/feminists want to 'liberate' a true, natural womanhood from cultural baggage etc. While this is true of some strands of feminist critique & action, Wittig (and Butler, and many others, and me) believe as you do, that any signifier of "female-hood" is going to be culturally determined or 'compromised': it's the "in different ways" that matters, and that's where a lot of feminists (particularly those influenced by French theory) are doing their work.
Does that make any sense? |
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