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The question asked on this thread was whether the crimes that England's accused of committing mean that she should be considered an unfit mother if she's convicted, bearing in mind that, apparently, she intends to have the child.
Firstly, I'd argue that it is relevant to ask why that specific question has been posed and what assumptions are being made in the framing of that question. I'm actually a lot happier with your wording, which makes it a much more boring and self-evident question ("Should she be considered an unfit mother?" "Yes, if she can be shown to be one by the usual court procedures"). There are some questions which are framed in such a way that they become dodgy even to ask, and I'm trying to get at what's dodgy in the framing of this particular question, which I think is fair.
But also, the question seems to me to be partly about whether England should be treated in the same way as any other prisoner or whether she should be singled out, in which case it's surely relevant to look at other analogous cases, or, again, to try and work out by comparison to other cases why this question is being posed in this particular way.
Talking about Graner, or any other alleged perpetrator of abuse or torture, male or female, is threadrot.
Well, Graner is alluded to in the summary/first post, both as alleged torturer and as father of the foetus, which suggests he has some relevance to the question as posed. But I'd be interested to know what you think would be relevant to this discussion, because I can't see what issues are raised by the question as you frame it - would you be interested in talking about whether a criminal court should have jurisdiction over declaring someone an unfit mother, or whether children should be separated from parents in custody as a matter of course? Or would that be threadrot too? Do you see this thread as only being about discussing the specific characteristics of England that might make her an unfit mother? (And don't you think that's a little creepy?) |
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