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I've done a search on this already and couldn't find anything so here goes...(Mods, please move this elsewhere if it doesn't fit the Lab criteria.)
I've been reading various articles on gender theory and biology and the like, and I was not surprised to read that men have about ten times more testosterone in their bodies than women. (Will post up the links later, bit pushed for time at the moment.) Now, we know that testosterone is largely, but not solely, a factor in determining aggressiveness, energy levels, sex drive, muscle build etc. And according to other studies, men who have been imprisoned for violent crimes have higher levels of testosterone in their bodies than men imprisoned for non-violent crimes. (Again, I will post up the links to these articles when I get the time, so please don't assume I'm generalising or stating this as indisputable fact.) So this leaves me wondering about whether testosterone levels have been used as mitigating factors for committing violent crimes - I am specifically comparing this to those few cases where women who have killed/harmed spouses have been cleared/released after claiming that extreme PMS disturbed their hormone levels, which subsequently disturbed the balance of their minds at the time. Could it not be reasonable to assume violent male criminals could also use the same defence? That their testosterone levels were so off the chart that they had no control over their actions?
Also, testosterone is being more widely used to combat depression, and in the restoration of sex drives in both men and women, sort of a unisex HRT program...is the increased use of testosterone in this way something to be encouraged, or is it tampering with biology in an unacceptable way? Testosterone levels naturally decrease dramatically in men during middle age - is it harmful to keep topping it up?
I apologise because this has been rushed, but you get the gist, right? I will be back... |
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